It’s well known (umm, OK, not well known but in detail some people know it) that at some point of revenue raising you’ve got to go off and tax the poor. You just can’t squeeze enough out of the richer to pay for a large State.
For example, an American economist (whose name I can never damn recall, which is annoying because he made a significant pledge to my unsuccessful kickstarter to do a book on the subject) keeps pointing out that if the US wants to move to a welfare state of European size it will have to have a VAT – a regressive tax. He also points out that the Swedish et al systems pay for themselves by taxing the poor more, not the rich that much more.
Which leads to a bleg. The information is definitely out there, but has anyone collated it?
We have the distributional impacts of taxation. The top 10% pay y % of all tax (usually we just see income tax, but the calculation for the total tax burden exists for UK and US at least). Top 20% z% and so on.
OK, has that all been collated?
My question being, well, do larger States ever manage to finance themselves by higher tax burdens on the richer? Or is it always done by taxing further down the income levels?
That is, do we have collated somewhere the percentage of GDP raised on the top 1%, top 10%, top 50%, bottom 10% and so on. Which can then be cross referenced against government as %ge of GDP? Or has this even been done?