I\’ve asked this before but still lacking an answer, will ask again.
Just in case there\’s a banking tax expert who reads this.
I\’ve got wandering around the back of my mind the thought that Gordon Brown changed the way that bank provisions (for loan losses) were taxed at some point.
He thought they were over-provisioning and thus dodging tax or something. So he made it less attractive for them to make such provisions.
Anyone able to point me to the exact bit where he did that?