I am aware that the terms neoliberal and neoclassical are technically the same in economic theory – but neoliberal does clearly imply a particular political approach to the issue which explains my preference for the term
No, they\’re not.
Neo-classical is Jevons etc, encoded by Marshall: the bloke who taught Keynes.
Neo-liberal is, when it means anything other than \”stuff Ritchie doesn\’t like\” means Friedman, Hayek, Mont Pelerin etc.
Neoclassical incorporates the concept of the margin (the marginalist revolution) into classical economics.
Keynes\’ theories incorporate a lot of such neoclassicism of course: see marginal propensity to consume for example, marginal propensity to save.
You can\’t get to Keynesianism without neoclassicism. You can without neo-liberalism, of course.
This book is actually going to be worse than I thought it was.