The idea was simple; these standards would first be enshrined in regional treaties such as the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) and then be given legal effect in every country. In the UK this was achieved when Labour enacted the Human Rights Act (HRA) in 1998.
The incoming Tory government now intends to strip our people of these universal rights by repealing the HRA.
No, the Tory government won’t strip anyone of any rights by repealing the Human Rights Act.
Did those rights exist in Britain pre-1998?
Would they still exist post repeal?
So Keir Starmer is blowing fucking smoke, isn’t he? Because they are rights that we gain by treaty, not domestic law. So, whether we have those rights or not depends on the treaty, not domestic law.
The key question is where are those rights justiciable? In the domestic courts or not? And how? According to continental style Roman Law? Or English style Common Law?
As long as we remain members of the Council of Europe (no, not the EU, the Council of Europe) then those rights still exist whatever the status of the Human Rights At.