The global coffee giant, Starbucks, is being sued for $5million over the amount of ice it puts in its iced drinks.
Stacy Pincus alleges that customers are being misled because the chilled beverages contain just over half the drink they are paying for.
An interesting thought really. Is ice part of a drink or not?
For example, in the UK, if you wanted ice in your beer in a pub then the ice would have to come in a separate glass. To put it into the pint itself would mean serving a short measure.
Still, shows that the US has solved all other problems, eh? Nothing left to argue about except ice in drinks.