Poverty is less than 60% of median household income, equivalised.
OK. It’s also usually measured by looking at disposable income – after taxes and benefits. OK, should be, obviously.
But here’s the question. The median household income that that is supposed to be 60% of. Is that also disposable income? After taxes and benefits?
I’m sure it must be but on the other hand given the casuistry around poverty numbers it might, might, just, not be.
So, anyone know?