A judge has forced a betting company to pay £1.7 million to a customer after it withheld his jackpot by claiming that he won because of a “defect” in an online game.
Andrew Green, 54, had told the High Court in London that he felt “robbed” when Betfred officials said that they would not pay out after his win.
When did bets and betting winnings etc become justiciable?
I thought the deal was that you couldn’t use the courts to enforce gambling debts and that’s why, also, gambling was income tax free?
Which bit am I missing here?